integral inequality of length of curveAn integral inequalityHow to show the inequality is strict?Prove an...

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integral inequality of length of curve


An integral inequalityHow to show the inequality is strict?Prove an integral inequality: $ left(int|f|^2dxright)^2le 4left(int|xf(x)|^2dxright)left(int|f'|^2dxright) $A tricky integral inequalityIntegral inequality problem (cauchy-schwarz)Need help on proving triangle inequality for norm.A particular proof of the mean value inequality for vector valued functionsAn integral inequality concerning compositionsIntegral inequality with a strange conditionAn inequality involving integrals and square root













3












$begingroup$


Let $f:mathbb{R}to mathbb{R}$ be a continuously differentiable function. Prove that for any $a.bin mathbb{R}$
$$left (int_a^bsqrt{1+(f'(x))^2},dxright)^2ge (a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$$.





i think mean value theorem kills it but can't do it ...even try cauchy-schwarz inequality but nothing conclution










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 3




    $begingroup$
    the smallest distance between the two points $(a, f(a))$ and $(b, f(b))$ is the straight line distance which is your RHS (the square root of that of course but same applies to LHS ; conclude...
    $endgroup$
    – Conrad
    3 hours ago












  • $begingroup$
    @Conrad But this is exactly what is to be proved, since the LHS is the definition of arc length.
    $endgroup$
    – Matematleta
    2 hours ago
















3












$begingroup$


Let $f:mathbb{R}to mathbb{R}$ be a continuously differentiable function. Prove that for any $a.bin mathbb{R}$
$$left (int_a^bsqrt{1+(f'(x))^2},dxright)^2ge (a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$$.





i think mean value theorem kills it but can't do it ...even try cauchy-schwarz inequality but nothing conclution










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 3




    $begingroup$
    the smallest distance between the two points $(a, f(a))$ and $(b, f(b))$ is the straight line distance which is your RHS (the square root of that of course but same applies to LHS ; conclude...
    $endgroup$
    – Conrad
    3 hours ago












  • $begingroup$
    @Conrad But this is exactly what is to be proved, since the LHS is the definition of arc length.
    $endgroup$
    – Matematleta
    2 hours ago














3












3








3


1



$begingroup$


Let $f:mathbb{R}to mathbb{R}$ be a continuously differentiable function. Prove that for any $a.bin mathbb{R}$
$$left (int_a^bsqrt{1+(f'(x))^2},dxright)^2ge (a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$$.





i think mean value theorem kills it but can't do it ...even try cauchy-schwarz inequality but nothing conclution










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Let $f:mathbb{R}to mathbb{R}$ be a continuously differentiable function. Prove that for any $a.bin mathbb{R}$
$$left (int_a^bsqrt{1+(f'(x))^2},dxright)^2ge (a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$$.





i think mean value theorem kills it but can't do it ...even try cauchy-schwarz inequality but nothing conclution







real-analysis






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited 3 hours ago









uniquesolution

8,8161823




8,8161823










asked 3 hours ago









RAM_3RRAM_3R

593214




593214








  • 3




    $begingroup$
    the smallest distance between the two points $(a, f(a))$ and $(b, f(b))$ is the straight line distance which is your RHS (the square root of that of course but same applies to LHS ; conclude...
    $endgroup$
    – Conrad
    3 hours ago












  • $begingroup$
    @Conrad But this is exactly what is to be proved, since the LHS is the definition of arc length.
    $endgroup$
    – Matematleta
    2 hours ago














  • 3




    $begingroup$
    the smallest distance between the two points $(a, f(a))$ and $(b, f(b))$ is the straight line distance which is your RHS (the square root of that of course but same applies to LHS ; conclude...
    $endgroup$
    – Conrad
    3 hours ago












  • $begingroup$
    @Conrad But this is exactly what is to be proved, since the LHS is the definition of arc length.
    $endgroup$
    – Matematleta
    2 hours ago








3




3




$begingroup$
the smallest distance between the two points $(a, f(a))$ and $(b, f(b))$ is the straight line distance which is your RHS (the square root of that of course but same applies to LHS ; conclude...
$endgroup$
– Conrad
3 hours ago






$begingroup$
the smallest distance between the two points $(a, f(a))$ and $(b, f(b))$ is the straight line distance which is your RHS (the square root of that of course but same applies to LHS ; conclude...
$endgroup$
– Conrad
3 hours ago














$begingroup$
@Conrad But this is exactly what is to be proved, since the LHS is the definition of arc length.
$endgroup$
– Matematleta
2 hours ago




$begingroup$
@Conrad But this is exactly what is to be proved, since the LHS is the definition of arc length.
$endgroup$
– Matematleta
2 hours ago










4 Answers
4






active

oldest

votes


















2












$begingroup$

Notice that the function $y mapsto sqrt{1+y^2}$ is strictly convex. So by the Jensen's inequality,



$$ frac{1}{b-a} int_{a}^{b} sqrt{1 + f'(x)^2} , mathrm{d}x geq sqrt{1 + left(frac{1}{b-a}int_{a}^{b} f'(x) , mathrm{d}xright)^2} = sqrt{1 + left(frac{f(b) - f(a)}{b-a} right)^2}. $$



Multiplying both sides by $b-a$ and squaring proves the desired inequality. Moreover, by the strict convexity, the equality holds if and only if $f'$ is constant over $[a, b]$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$









  • 1




    $begingroup$
    This really nice!
    $endgroup$
    – Nastar
    28 mins ago



















1












$begingroup$

An easy way to do this is to note that since distance is invariant under rotations, without loss of generality, we may assume that $f(a)=f(b).$ And now, since $sqrt{1-f'(x)}ge 0$ on $[a,b]$, the function in $C^1([a,b])$ that minimizes the integral coincides with the function $f$ that minimizes the integrand, and clearly, this happens when $f'(x)=0$ for all $xin [a,b].$ That is, when $f$ is constant on $[a,b].$ Then, $f(x)=f(a)$ and the result follows.



If you want to do this without the wlog assumption, then argue as follows:



Let $epsilon>0, fin C^1([a,b])$ and choose a partition $P={a,x_1,cdots,x_{n-2},b}$.



The length of the polygonal path obtained by joining the points



$(x_i,f(x_i))$ is $sum_i sqrt{(Delta x_i)^2+(Delta y_i)^2}$ and this is clearly $ge (b-a)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$. (You can make this precise by using an induction argument on $n$.)



And this is true for $textit{any}$ partition $P$.



But the above sum is also $sum_isqrt{1+frac{Delta y_i}{Delta x_i}}Delta x_i $ and now, upon applying the MVT, we see that what we have is a Riemann sum for $sqrt{1+f'(x)}$.



To finish, choose $P$ such that $left |int^b_asqrt{1+f'(x)}dx- sum_isqrt{1+f'(c_i)}Delta x_i right |<epsilon $. (The $c_i$ are the numbers $x_i<c_i<x_{i-1}$ obtained from the MVT). Then,



$(b-a)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2le sum_isqrt{1+f'(c)}Delta x_i<int^b_asqrt{1+f'(x)}+epsilon.$



Since $epsilon$ is arbitrary, the result follows.



For a slick way to do this, use a variational argument: assuming a minimum $f$ exists, consider $f+tphi$ where $t$ is a real parameter and $phi$ is arbitrary $C^1([a,b])$.



Subsitute it into the integral:



$l(t)=int_a^b sqrt{1+(f'+tphi')^2}dx$.



Since $f$ minimizes this integral, the derivative of $l$ at $t=0$ must be equal to zero. Then,



$0=l'(0)= int_a^b dfrac{f'phi'}{sqrt{1+(f')^2}}dx$.



After an integration by parts, we get



$dfrac{f'}{sqrt{1+(f')^2}} = c$ for some constant $cin mathbb R,$ from which it follows that $f'=c$. And this means, of course, that the graph of $f$ is a straight line connecting $(a,f(a))$ and $(b,f(b)).$ The desired inequality follows.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$





















    0












    $begingroup$

    Expanding upon what @Conrad said, the shortest distance between two points is the distance of the line between, which is what your RHS is measuring (it is actually the square of the distance from $(a, f(a))$ to $(b, f(b))$.



    Now if we assume $left (int_a^bsqrt{1+(f'(x))^2},dxright)^2 < (a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$, then we have contradicted the fact that that the shortest distance between $(a, f(a))$ and $(b, f(b))$ is $sqrt{(a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2}$. Therefore, it must be the case that $left (int_a^bsqrt{1+(f'(x))^2},dxright)^2 geq (a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$






    share|cite|improve this answer








    New contributor




    se2018 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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    $endgroup$





















      0












      $begingroup$

      Note that for every complex valued integrable function $phi :[a,b]to Bbb C$, it holds that
      $$
      left|int_a^b phi(x) dxright|le int_a^b|phi(x)| dx.
      $$
      Let $phi(x)=1+if'(x)$. Then we can see that
      $$begin{align*}
      left|int_a^b phi(x) dxright|&=left|(b-a)+i(f(b)-f(a))right|\&=sqrt{(b-a)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2}
      end{align*}$$
      and
      $$
      int_a^b|phi(x)| dx=int_a^b sqrt{1+(f'(x))^2} dx.
      $$
      Now, the desired inequality follows.






      share|cite









      $endgroup$













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        4 Answers
        4






        active

        oldest

        votes








        4 Answers
        4






        active

        oldest

        votes









        active

        oldest

        votes






        active

        oldest

        votes









        2












        $begingroup$

        Notice that the function $y mapsto sqrt{1+y^2}$ is strictly convex. So by the Jensen's inequality,



        $$ frac{1}{b-a} int_{a}^{b} sqrt{1 + f'(x)^2} , mathrm{d}x geq sqrt{1 + left(frac{1}{b-a}int_{a}^{b} f'(x) , mathrm{d}xright)^2} = sqrt{1 + left(frac{f(b) - f(a)}{b-a} right)^2}. $$



        Multiplying both sides by $b-a$ and squaring proves the desired inequality. Moreover, by the strict convexity, the equality holds if and only if $f'$ is constant over $[a, b]$.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$









        • 1




          $begingroup$
          This really nice!
          $endgroup$
          – Nastar
          28 mins ago
















        2












        $begingroup$

        Notice that the function $y mapsto sqrt{1+y^2}$ is strictly convex. So by the Jensen's inequality,



        $$ frac{1}{b-a} int_{a}^{b} sqrt{1 + f'(x)^2} , mathrm{d}x geq sqrt{1 + left(frac{1}{b-a}int_{a}^{b} f'(x) , mathrm{d}xright)^2} = sqrt{1 + left(frac{f(b) - f(a)}{b-a} right)^2}. $$



        Multiplying both sides by $b-a$ and squaring proves the desired inequality. Moreover, by the strict convexity, the equality holds if and only if $f'$ is constant over $[a, b]$.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$









        • 1




          $begingroup$
          This really nice!
          $endgroup$
          – Nastar
          28 mins ago














        2












        2








        2





        $begingroup$

        Notice that the function $y mapsto sqrt{1+y^2}$ is strictly convex. So by the Jensen's inequality,



        $$ frac{1}{b-a} int_{a}^{b} sqrt{1 + f'(x)^2} , mathrm{d}x geq sqrt{1 + left(frac{1}{b-a}int_{a}^{b} f'(x) , mathrm{d}xright)^2} = sqrt{1 + left(frac{f(b) - f(a)}{b-a} right)^2}. $$



        Multiplying both sides by $b-a$ and squaring proves the desired inequality. Moreover, by the strict convexity, the equality holds if and only if $f'$ is constant over $[a, b]$.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        Notice that the function $y mapsto sqrt{1+y^2}$ is strictly convex. So by the Jensen's inequality,



        $$ frac{1}{b-a} int_{a}^{b} sqrt{1 + f'(x)^2} , mathrm{d}x geq sqrt{1 + left(frac{1}{b-a}int_{a}^{b} f'(x) , mathrm{d}xright)^2} = sqrt{1 + left(frac{f(b) - f(a)}{b-a} right)^2}. $$



        Multiplying both sides by $b-a$ and squaring proves the desired inequality. Moreover, by the strict convexity, the equality holds if and only if $f'$ is constant over $[a, b]$.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered 39 mins ago









        Sangchul LeeSangchul Lee

        95.1k12170277




        95.1k12170277








        • 1




          $begingroup$
          This really nice!
          $endgroup$
          – Nastar
          28 mins ago














        • 1




          $begingroup$
          This really nice!
          $endgroup$
          – Nastar
          28 mins ago








        1




        1




        $begingroup$
        This really nice!
        $endgroup$
        – Nastar
        28 mins ago




        $begingroup$
        This really nice!
        $endgroup$
        – Nastar
        28 mins ago











        1












        $begingroup$

        An easy way to do this is to note that since distance is invariant under rotations, without loss of generality, we may assume that $f(a)=f(b).$ And now, since $sqrt{1-f'(x)}ge 0$ on $[a,b]$, the function in $C^1([a,b])$ that minimizes the integral coincides with the function $f$ that minimizes the integrand, and clearly, this happens when $f'(x)=0$ for all $xin [a,b].$ That is, when $f$ is constant on $[a,b].$ Then, $f(x)=f(a)$ and the result follows.



        If you want to do this without the wlog assumption, then argue as follows:



        Let $epsilon>0, fin C^1([a,b])$ and choose a partition $P={a,x_1,cdots,x_{n-2},b}$.



        The length of the polygonal path obtained by joining the points



        $(x_i,f(x_i))$ is $sum_i sqrt{(Delta x_i)^2+(Delta y_i)^2}$ and this is clearly $ge (b-a)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$. (You can make this precise by using an induction argument on $n$.)



        And this is true for $textit{any}$ partition $P$.



        But the above sum is also $sum_isqrt{1+frac{Delta y_i}{Delta x_i}}Delta x_i $ and now, upon applying the MVT, we see that what we have is a Riemann sum for $sqrt{1+f'(x)}$.



        To finish, choose $P$ such that $left |int^b_asqrt{1+f'(x)}dx- sum_isqrt{1+f'(c_i)}Delta x_i right |<epsilon $. (The $c_i$ are the numbers $x_i<c_i<x_{i-1}$ obtained from the MVT). Then,



        $(b-a)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2le sum_isqrt{1+f'(c)}Delta x_i<int^b_asqrt{1+f'(x)}+epsilon.$



        Since $epsilon$ is arbitrary, the result follows.



        For a slick way to do this, use a variational argument: assuming a minimum $f$ exists, consider $f+tphi$ where $t$ is a real parameter and $phi$ is arbitrary $C^1([a,b])$.



        Subsitute it into the integral:



        $l(t)=int_a^b sqrt{1+(f'+tphi')^2}dx$.



        Since $f$ minimizes this integral, the derivative of $l$ at $t=0$ must be equal to zero. Then,



        $0=l'(0)= int_a^b dfrac{f'phi'}{sqrt{1+(f')^2}}dx$.



        After an integration by parts, we get



        $dfrac{f'}{sqrt{1+(f')^2}} = c$ for some constant $cin mathbb R,$ from which it follows that $f'=c$. And this means, of course, that the graph of $f$ is a straight line connecting $(a,f(a))$ and $(b,f(b)).$ The desired inequality follows.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$


















          1












          $begingroup$

          An easy way to do this is to note that since distance is invariant under rotations, without loss of generality, we may assume that $f(a)=f(b).$ And now, since $sqrt{1-f'(x)}ge 0$ on $[a,b]$, the function in $C^1([a,b])$ that minimizes the integral coincides with the function $f$ that minimizes the integrand, and clearly, this happens when $f'(x)=0$ for all $xin [a,b].$ That is, when $f$ is constant on $[a,b].$ Then, $f(x)=f(a)$ and the result follows.



          If you want to do this without the wlog assumption, then argue as follows:



          Let $epsilon>0, fin C^1([a,b])$ and choose a partition $P={a,x_1,cdots,x_{n-2},b}$.



          The length of the polygonal path obtained by joining the points



          $(x_i,f(x_i))$ is $sum_i sqrt{(Delta x_i)^2+(Delta y_i)^2}$ and this is clearly $ge (b-a)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$. (You can make this precise by using an induction argument on $n$.)



          And this is true for $textit{any}$ partition $P$.



          But the above sum is also $sum_isqrt{1+frac{Delta y_i}{Delta x_i}}Delta x_i $ and now, upon applying the MVT, we see that what we have is a Riemann sum for $sqrt{1+f'(x)}$.



          To finish, choose $P$ such that $left |int^b_asqrt{1+f'(x)}dx- sum_isqrt{1+f'(c_i)}Delta x_i right |<epsilon $. (The $c_i$ are the numbers $x_i<c_i<x_{i-1}$ obtained from the MVT). Then,



          $(b-a)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2le sum_isqrt{1+f'(c)}Delta x_i<int^b_asqrt{1+f'(x)}+epsilon.$



          Since $epsilon$ is arbitrary, the result follows.



          For a slick way to do this, use a variational argument: assuming a minimum $f$ exists, consider $f+tphi$ where $t$ is a real parameter and $phi$ is arbitrary $C^1([a,b])$.



          Subsitute it into the integral:



          $l(t)=int_a^b sqrt{1+(f'+tphi')^2}dx$.



          Since $f$ minimizes this integral, the derivative of $l$ at $t=0$ must be equal to zero. Then,



          $0=l'(0)= int_a^b dfrac{f'phi'}{sqrt{1+(f')^2}}dx$.



          After an integration by parts, we get



          $dfrac{f'}{sqrt{1+(f')^2}} = c$ for some constant $cin mathbb R,$ from which it follows that $f'=c$. And this means, of course, that the graph of $f$ is a straight line connecting $(a,f(a))$ and $(b,f(b)).$ The desired inequality follows.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$
















            1












            1








            1





            $begingroup$

            An easy way to do this is to note that since distance is invariant under rotations, without loss of generality, we may assume that $f(a)=f(b).$ And now, since $sqrt{1-f'(x)}ge 0$ on $[a,b]$, the function in $C^1([a,b])$ that minimizes the integral coincides with the function $f$ that minimizes the integrand, and clearly, this happens when $f'(x)=0$ for all $xin [a,b].$ That is, when $f$ is constant on $[a,b].$ Then, $f(x)=f(a)$ and the result follows.



            If you want to do this without the wlog assumption, then argue as follows:



            Let $epsilon>0, fin C^1([a,b])$ and choose a partition $P={a,x_1,cdots,x_{n-2},b}$.



            The length of the polygonal path obtained by joining the points



            $(x_i,f(x_i))$ is $sum_i sqrt{(Delta x_i)^2+(Delta y_i)^2}$ and this is clearly $ge (b-a)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$. (You can make this precise by using an induction argument on $n$.)



            And this is true for $textit{any}$ partition $P$.



            But the above sum is also $sum_isqrt{1+frac{Delta y_i}{Delta x_i}}Delta x_i $ and now, upon applying the MVT, we see that what we have is a Riemann sum for $sqrt{1+f'(x)}$.



            To finish, choose $P$ such that $left |int^b_asqrt{1+f'(x)}dx- sum_isqrt{1+f'(c_i)}Delta x_i right |<epsilon $. (The $c_i$ are the numbers $x_i<c_i<x_{i-1}$ obtained from the MVT). Then,



            $(b-a)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2le sum_isqrt{1+f'(c)}Delta x_i<int^b_asqrt{1+f'(x)}+epsilon.$



            Since $epsilon$ is arbitrary, the result follows.



            For a slick way to do this, use a variational argument: assuming a minimum $f$ exists, consider $f+tphi$ where $t$ is a real parameter and $phi$ is arbitrary $C^1([a,b])$.



            Subsitute it into the integral:



            $l(t)=int_a^b sqrt{1+(f'+tphi')^2}dx$.



            Since $f$ minimizes this integral, the derivative of $l$ at $t=0$ must be equal to zero. Then,



            $0=l'(0)= int_a^b dfrac{f'phi'}{sqrt{1+(f')^2}}dx$.



            After an integration by parts, we get



            $dfrac{f'}{sqrt{1+(f')^2}} = c$ for some constant $cin mathbb R,$ from which it follows that $f'=c$. And this means, of course, that the graph of $f$ is a straight line connecting $(a,f(a))$ and $(b,f(b)).$ The desired inequality follows.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$



            An easy way to do this is to note that since distance is invariant under rotations, without loss of generality, we may assume that $f(a)=f(b).$ And now, since $sqrt{1-f'(x)}ge 0$ on $[a,b]$, the function in $C^1([a,b])$ that minimizes the integral coincides with the function $f$ that minimizes the integrand, and clearly, this happens when $f'(x)=0$ for all $xin [a,b].$ That is, when $f$ is constant on $[a,b].$ Then, $f(x)=f(a)$ and the result follows.



            If you want to do this without the wlog assumption, then argue as follows:



            Let $epsilon>0, fin C^1([a,b])$ and choose a partition $P={a,x_1,cdots,x_{n-2},b}$.



            The length of the polygonal path obtained by joining the points



            $(x_i,f(x_i))$ is $sum_i sqrt{(Delta x_i)^2+(Delta y_i)^2}$ and this is clearly $ge (b-a)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$. (You can make this precise by using an induction argument on $n$.)



            And this is true for $textit{any}$ partition $P$.



            But the above sum is also $sum_isqrt{1+frac{Delta y_i}{Delta x_i}}Delta x_i $ and now, upon applying the MVT, we see that what we have is a Riemann sum for $sqrt{1+f'(x)}$.



            To finish, choose $P$ such that $left |int^b_asqrt{1+f'(x)}dx- sum_isqrt{1+f'(c_i)}Delta x_i right |<epsilon $. (The $c_i$ are the numbers $x_i<c_i<x_{i-1}$ obtained from the MVT). Then,



            $(b-a)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2le sum_isqrt{1+f'(c)}Delta x_i<int^b_asqrt{1+f'(x)}+epsilon.$



            Since $epsilon$ is arbitrary, the result follows.



            For a slick way to do this, use a variational argument: assuming a minimum $f$ exists, consider $f+tphi$ where $t$ is a real parameter and $phi$ is arbitrary $C^1([a,b])$.



            Subsitute it into the integral:



            $l(t)=int_a^b sqrt{1+(f'+tphi')^2}dx$.



            Since $f$ minimizes this integral, the derivative of $l$ at $t=0$ must be equal to zero. Then,



            $0=l'(0)= int_a^b dfrac{f'phi'}{sqrt{1+(f')^2}}dx$.



            After an integration by parts, we get



            $dfrac{f'}{sqrt{1+(f')^2}} = c$ for some constant $cin mathbb R,$ from which it follows that $f'=c$. And this means, of course, that the graph of $f$ is a straight line connecting $(a,f(a))$ and $(b,f(b)).$ The desired inequality follows.







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            edited 45 mins ago

























            answered 2 hours ago









            MatematletaMatematleta

            11.5k2920




            11.5k2920























                0












                $begingroup$

                Expanding upon what @Conrad said, the shortest distance between two points is the distance of the line between, which is what your RHS is measuring (it is actually the square of the distance from $(a, f(a))$ to $(b, f(b))$.



                Now if we assume $left (int_a^bsqrt{1+(f'(x))^2},dxright)^2 < (a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$, then we have contradicted the fact that that the shortest distance between $(a, f(a))$ and $(b, f(b))$ is $sqrt{(a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2}$. Therefore, it must be the case that $left (int_a^bsqrt{1+(f'(x))^2},dxright)^2 geq (a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$






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                $endgroup$


















                  0












                  $begingroup$

                  Expanding upon what @Conrad said, the shortest distance between two points is the distance of the line between, which is what your RHS is measuring (it is actually the square of the distance from $(a, f(a))$ to $(b, f(b))$.



                  Now if we assume $left (int_a^bsqrt{1+(f'(x))^2},dxright)^2 < (a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$, then we have contradicted the fact that that the shortest distance between $(a, f(a))$ and $(b, f(b))$ is $sqrt{(a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2}$. Therefore, it must be the case that $left (int_a^bsqrt{1+(f'(x))^2},dxright)^2 geq (a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$






                  share|cite|improve this answer








                  New contributor




                  se2018 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
                  Check out our Code of Conduct.






                  $endgroup$
















                    0












                    0








                    0





                    $begingroup$

                    Expanding upon what @Conrad said, the shortest distance between two points is the distance of the line between, which is what your RHS is measuring (it is actually the square of the distance from $(a, f(a))$ to $(b, f(b))$.



                    Now if we assume $left (int_a^bsqrt{1+(f'(x))^2},dxright)^2 < (a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$, then we have contradicted the fact that that the shortest distance between $(a, f(a))$ and $(b, f(b))$ is $sqrt{(a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2}$. Therefore, it must be the case that $left (int_a^bsqrt{1+(f'(x))^2},dxright)^2 geq (a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$






                    share|cite|improve this answer








                    New contributor




                    se2018 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
                    Check out our Code of Conduct.






                    $endgroup$



                    Expanding upon what @Conrad said, the shortest distance between two points is the distance of the line between, which is what your RHS is measuring (it is actually the square of the distance from $(a, f(a))$ to $(b, f(b))$.



                    Now if we assume $left (int_a^bsqrt{1+(f'(x))^2},dxright)^2 < (a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$, then we have contradicted the fact that that the shortest distance between $(a, f(a))$ and $(b, f(b))$ is $sqrt{(a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2}$. Therefore, it must be the case that $left (int_a^bsqrt{1+(f'(x))^2},dxright)^2 geq (a-b)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2$







                    share|cite|improve this answer








                    New contributor




                    se2018 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
                    Check out our Code of Conduct.









                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer






                    New contributor




                    se2018 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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                    answered 3 hours ago









                    se2018se2018

                    873




                    873




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                    New contributor





                    se2018 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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                        0












                        $begingroup$

                        Note that for every complex valued integrable function $phi :[a,b]to Bbb C$, it holds that
                        $$
                        left|int_a^b phi(x) dxright|le int_a^b|phi(x)| dx.
                        $$
                        Let $phi(x)=1+if'(x)$. Then we can see that
                        $$begin{align*}
                        left|int_a^b phi(x) dxright|&=left|(b-a)+i(f(b)-f(a))right|\&=sqrt{(b-a)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2}
                        end{align*}$$
                        and
                        $$
                        int_a^b|phi(x)| dx=int_a^b sqrt{1+(f'(x))^2} dx.
                        $$
                        Now, the desired inequality follows.






                        share|cite









                        $endgroup$


















                          0












                          $begingroup$

                          Note that for every complex valued integrable function $phi :[a,b]to Bbb C$, it holds that
                          $$
                          left|int_a^b phi(x) dxright|le int_a^b|phi(x)| dx.
                          $$
                          Let $phi(x)=1+if'(x)$. Then we can see that
                          $$begin{align*}
                          left|int_a^b phi(x) dxright|&=left|(b-a)+i(f(b)-f(a))right|\&=sqrt{(b-a)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2}
                          end{align*}$$
                          and
                          $$
                          int_a^b|phi(x)| dx=int_a^b sqrt{1+(f'(x))^2} dx.
                          $$
                          Now, the desired inequality follows.






                          share|cite









                          $endgroup$
















                            0












                            0








                            0





                            $begingroup$

                            Note that for every complex valued integrable function $phi :[a,b]to Bbb C$, it holds that
                            $$
                            left|int_a^b phi(x) dxright|le int_a^b|phi(x)| dx.
                            $$
                            Let $phi(x)=1+if'(x)$. Then we can see that
                            $$begin{align*}
                            left|int_a^b phi(x) dxright|&=left|(b-a)+i(f(b)-f(a))right|\&=sqrt{(b-a)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2}
                            end{align*}$$
                            and
                            $$
                            int_a^b|phi(x)| dx=int_a^b sqrt{1+(f'(x))^2} dx.
                            $$
                            Now, the desired inequality follows.






                            share|cite









                            $endgroup$



                            Note that for every complex valued integrable function $phi :[a,b]to Bbb C$, it holds that
                            $$
                            left|int_a^b phi(x) dxright|le int_a^b|phi(x)| dx.
                            $$
                            Let $phi(x)=1+if'(x)$. Then we can see that
                            $$begin{align*}
                            left|int_a^b phi(x) dxright|&=left|(b-a)+i(f(b)-f(a))right|\&=sqrt{(b-a)^2+(f(b)-f(a))^2}
                            end{align*}$$
                            and
                            $$
                            int_a^b|phi(x)| dx=int_a^b sqrt{1+(f'(x))^2} dx.
                            $$
                            Now, the desired inequality follows.







                            share|cite












                            share|cite



                            share|cite










                            answered 1 min ago









                            SongSong

                            16.1k1739




                            16.1k1739






























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