Understanding “audieritis” in Psalm 94When did unsyncopated forms become archaic?Do contracted perfects...
Teaching indefinite integrals that require special-casing
Why Were Madagascar and New Zealand Discovered So Late?
Finding all intervals that match predicate in vector
Is there any reason not to eat food that's been dropped on the surface of the moon?
Your magic is very sketchy
At which point does a character regain all their Hit Dice?
How was Earth single-handedly capable of creating 3 of the 4 gods of chaos?
Is HostGator storing my password in plaintext?
Student evaluations of teaching assistants
Valid Badminton Score?
What is the intuitive meaning of having a linear relationship between the logs of two variables?
Tiptoe or tiphoof? Adjusting words to better fit fantasy races
Implement the Thanos sorting algorithm
Why is delta-v is the most useful quantity for planning space travel?
Displaying the order of the columns of a table
How does it work when somebody invests in my business?
Bash method for viewing beginning and end of file
What would be the benefits of having both a state and local currencies?
Lay out the Carpet
Why are on-board computers allowed to change controls without notifying the pilots?
Ways to speed up user implemented RK4
Where in the Bible does the greeting ("Dominus Vobiscum") used at Mass come from?
What would happen if the UK refused to take part in EU Parliamentary elections?
Increase performance creating Mandelbrot set in python
Understanding “audieritis” in Psalm 94
When did unsyncopated forms become archaic?Do contracted perfects have long or short vowels?Comparison of Adjective to NounUnderstanding the stem(s) of 'struere'Understanding vowel quantity in fieriUnderstanding Lewis and Short: Why sūbĭcĭo and not subjĭcĭo?Literal translation of VulgateElevatis oculis?Understanding 'percepset' instead of 'percepisset'Understanding “jam nunc”Understanding the use of “regnavit”Understanding entries in Latin dictionary
Consider the following excerpt from Psalm 94 in the Vulgate.
Hódie, si vocem eius audiéritis, nolíte obduráre corda vestra, sicut in exacerbatióne secúndum diem tentatiónis in desérto: ubi tentavérunt me patres vestri, probavérunt et vidérunt ópera mea.
I know that an English translation of the same Psalm reads, "If today you hear his voice, harden not your hearts." At first glance, it looks to me like the present subjunctive should have been used and the translator should have written audiatis in place of audieritis.
I think audieritis is the future perfect (why isn't it audiveritis?), in which case a literal translation would be, "If today you will have heard his voice, refuse to harden your hearts." But this seems odd. Is there a certain Latin grammatical rule I'm missing? Why would the future perfect be used here? And why wouldn't it be written audiveritis?
classical-latin verbs vulgata syncopated-perfect
edited 2 hours ago
Draconis
17.8k22474
asked 4 hours ago
Pascal's WagerPascal's Wager
3116
add a comment |
Consider the following excerpt from Psalm 94 in the Vulgate.
Hódie, si vocem eius audiéritis, nolíte obduráre corda vestra, sicut in exacerbatióne secúndum diem tentatiónis in desérto: ubi tentavérunt me patres vestri, probavérunt et vidérunt ópera mea.
I know that an English translation of the same Psalm reads, "If today you hear his voice, harden not your hearts." At first glance, it looks to me like the present subjunctive should have been used and the translator should have written audiatis in place of audieritis.
I think audieritis is the future perfect (why isn't it audiveritis?), in which case a literal translation would be, "If today you will have heard his voice, refuse to harden your hearts." But this seems odd. Is there a certain Latin grammatical rule I'm missing? Why would the future perfect be used here? And why wouldn't it be written audiveritis?
classical-latin verbs vulgata syncopated-perfect
edited 2 hours ago
Draconis
17.8k22474
asked 4 hours ago
Pascal's WagerPascal's Wager
3116
The intervocalic v of perfect stems can often be lost (sometimes with contraction of the vowels to a single long vowel, sometimes without contraction). Here is a question asking about related contractions: When did unsyncopated forms become archaic?
– sumelic
4 hours ago
add a comment |
Consider the following excerpt from Psalm 94 in the Vulgate.
Hódie, si vocem eius audiéritis, nolíte obduráre corda vestra, sicut in exacerbatióne secúndum diem tentatiónis in desérto: ubi tentavérunt me patres vestri, probavérunt et vidérunt ópera mea.
I know that an English translation of the same Psalm reads, "If today you hear his voice, harden not your hearts." At first glance, it looks to me like the present subjunctive should have been used and the translator should have written audiatis in place of audieritis.
I think audieritis is the future perfect (why isn't it audiveritis?), in which case a literal translation would be, "If today you will have heard his voice, refuse to harden your hearts." But this seems odd. Is there a certain Latin grammatical rule I'm missing? Why would the future perfect be used here? And why wouldn't it be written audiveritis?
classical-latin verbs vulgata syncopated-perfect
edited 2 hours ago
Draconis
17.8k22474
asked 4 hours ago
Pascal's WagerPascal's Wager
3116
Consider the following excerpt from Psalm 94 in the Vulgate.
Hódie, si vocem eius audiéritis, nolíte obduráre corda vestra, sicut in exacerbatióne secúndum diem tentatiónis in desérto: ubi tentavérunt me patres vestri, probavérunt et vidérunt ópera mea.
I know that an English translation of the same Psalm reads, "If today you hear his voice, harden not your hearts." At first glance, it looks to me like the present subjunctive should have been used and the translator should have written audiatis in place of audieritis.
I think audieritis is the future perfect (why isn't it audiveritis?), in which case a literal translation would be, "If today you will have heard his voice, refuse to harden your hearts." But this seems odd. Is there a certain Latin grammatical rule I'm missing? Why would the future perfect be used here? And why wouldn't it be written audiveritis?
classical-latin verbs vulgata syncopated-perfect
classical-latin verbs vulgata syncopated-perfect
edited 2 hours ago
Draconis
17.8k22474
asked 4 hours ago
Pascal's WagerPascal's Wager
3116
edited 2 hours ago
Draconis
17.8k22474
asked 4 hours ago
Pascal's WagerPascal's Wager
3116
edited 2 hours ago
Draconis
17.8k22474
edited 2 hours ago
Draconis
17.8k22474
edited 2 hours ago
Draconis
17.8k22474
17.8k22474
asked 4 hours ago
Pascal's WagerPascal's Wager
3116
asked 4 hours ago
Pascal's WagerPascal's Wager
3116
asked 4 hours ago
Pascal's WagerPascal's Wager
3116
3116
The intervocalic v of perfect stems can often be lost (sometimes with contraction of the vowels to a single long vowel, sometimes without contraction). Here is a question asking about related contractions: When did unsyncopated forms become archaic?
– sumelic
4 hours ago
add a comment |
The intervocalic v of perfect stems can often be lost (sometimes with contraction of the vowels to a single long vowel, sometimes without contraction). Here is a question asking about related contractions: When did unsyncopated forms become archaic?
– sumelic
4 hours ago
The intervocalic v of perfect stems can often be lost (sometimes with contraction of the vowels to a single long vowel, sometimes without contraction). Here is a question asking about related contractions: When did unsyncopated forms become archaic?
– sumelic
4 hours ago
The intervocalic v of perfect stems can often be lost (sometimes with contraction of the vowels to a single long vowel, sometimes without contraction). Here is a question asking about related contractions: When did unsyncopated forms become archaic?
– sumelic
4 hours ago
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
You might be surprised to learn that forms with -āv- and -īv- (amāvī, audīvī) are extremely rare in Classical Latin, considered archaic and pretentious by major grammarians! It certainly came as a surprise to me about a month ago, after eight years studying classics…
The upshot is, you should absolutely expect audīeritis instead of audīveritis. Contraction is more common than you've been taught!
As you've rightly surmised, this is a future perfect form. Literally, something like "you all will have heard". However, this "will have heard" phrasing is awkward in English. English uses the normal present instead, so in any context except a Latin class I would just say "if you hear".
As for why it's future perfect: Latin uses future tense for anything that hasn't happened yet. English doesn't always: consider something like "if you go to the store, make sure to get some eggs". If I'm saying this, you're clearly not going to the store yet. But English leaves off future marking after "if". In particular, Latin would use the future perfect, since it's describing something that hasn't happened yet, but has to happen before something else. The audience can't refuse to harden their hearts until they've heard him speaking.
As for why it's indicative: this is something the speaker actually thinks will happen. The listeners are going to go hear him. Subjunctive is used when it's not likely that the condition will actually come true (or, if you know it actually hasn't happened).
answered 4 hours ago
DraconisDraconis
17.8k22474
1
I think that the i might be shortened in this context (I'd need to check to be sure). Leumann mentions a form "dormĭĕrunt", which seems analogous, although he also mentions "īerant" as a form of eo.
– sumelic
4 hours ago
@sumelic Oh, interesting, I didn't know it was ever shortened! There's a lot I don't know about contractions it seems…
– Draconis
3 hours ago
add a comment |
Your Answer
StackExchange.ready(function() {
var channelOptions = {
tags: "".split(" "),
id: "644"
};
initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);
StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function() {
// Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled) {
StackExchange.using("snippets", function() {
createEditor();
});
}
else {
createEditor();
}
});
function createEditor() {
StackExchange.prepareEditor({
heartbeatType: 'answer',
autoActivateHeartbeat: false,
convertImagesToLinks: false,
noModals: true,
showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
reputationToPostImages: null,
bindNavPrevention: true,
postfix: "",
imageUploader: {
brandingHtml: "Powered by u003ca class="icon-imgur-white" href="https://imgur.com/"u003eu003c/au003e",
contentPolicyHtml: "User contributions licensed under u003ca href="https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/"u003ecc by-sa 3.0 with attribution requiredu003c/au003e u003ca href="https://stackoverflow.com/legal/content-policy"u003e(content policy)u003c/au003e",
allowUrls: true
},
noCode: true, onDemand: true,
discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
});
}
});
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function () {
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
});
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
StackExchange.ready(
function () {
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2flatin.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f9350%2funderstanding-audieritis-in-psalm-94%23new-answer', 'question_page');
}
);
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
You might be surprised to learn that forms with -āv- and -īv- (amāvī, audīvī) are extremely rare in Classical Latin, considered archaic and pretentious by major grammarians! It certainly came as a surprise to me about a month ago, after eight years studying classics…
The upshot is, you should absolutely expect audīeritis instead of audīveritis. Contraction is more common than you've been taught!
As you've rightly surmised, this is a future perfect form. Literally, something like "you all will have heard". However, this "will have heard" phrasing is awkward in English. English uses the normal present instead, so in any context except a Latin class I would just say "if you hear".
As for why it's future perfect: Latin uses future tense for anything that hasn't happened yet. English doesn't always: consider something like "if you go to the store, make sure to get some eggs". If I'm saying this, you're clearly not going to the store yet. But English leaves off future marking after "if". In particular, Latin would use the future perfect, since it's describing something that hasn't happened yet, but has to happen before something else. The audience can't refuse to harden their hearts until they've heard him speaking.
As for why it's indicative: this is something the speaker actually thinks will happen. The listeners are going to go hear him. Subjunctive is used when it's not likely that the condition will actually come true (or, if you know it actually hasn't happened).
answered 4 hours ago
DraconisDraconis
17.8k22474
1
I think that the i might be shortened in this context (I'd need to check to be sure). Leumann mentions a form "dormĭĕrunt", which seems analogous, although he also mentions "īerant" as a form of eo.
– sumelic
4 hours ago
@sumelic Oh, interesting, I didn't know it was ever shortened! There's a lot I don't know about contractions it seems…
– Draconis
3 hours ago
add a comment |
You might be surprised to learn that forms with -āv- and -īv- (amāvī, audīvī) are extremely rare in Classical Latin, considered archaic and pretentious by major grammarians! It certainly came as a surprise to me about a month ago, after eight years studying classics…
The upshot is, you should absolutely expect audīeritis instead of audīveritis. Contraction is more common than you've been taught!
As you've rightly surmised, this is a future perfect form. Literally, something like "you all will have heard". However, this "will have heard" phrasing is awkward in English. English uses the normal present instead, so in any context except a Latin class I would just say "if you hear".
As for why it's future perfect: Latin uses future tense for anything that hasn't happened yet. English doesn't always: consider something like "if you go to the store, make sure to get some eggs". If I'm saying this, you're clearly not going to the store yet. But English leaves off future marking after "if". In particular, Latin would use the future perfect, since it's describing something that hasn't happened yet, but has to happen before something else. The audience can't refuse to harden their hearts until they've heard him speaking.
As for why it's indicative: this is something the speaker actually thinks will happen. The listeners are going to go hear him. Subjunctive is used when it's not likely that the condition will actually come true (or, if you know it actually hasn't happened).
answered 4 hours ago
DraconisDraconis
17.8k22474
1
I think that the i might be shortened in this context (I'd need to check to be sure). Leumann mentions a form "dormĭĕrunt", which seems analogous, although he also mentions "īerant" as a form of eo.
– sumelic
4 hours ago
@sumelic Oh, interesting, I didn't know it was ever shortened! There's a lot I don't know about contractions it seems…
– Draconis
3 hours ago
add a comment |
You might be surprised to learn that forms with -āv- and -īv- (amāvī, audīvī) are extremely rare in Classical Latin, considered archaic and pretentious by major grammarians! It certainly came as a surprise to me about a month ago, after eight years studying classics…
The upshot is, you should absolutely expect audīeritis instead of audīveritis. Contraction is more common than you've been taught!
As you've rightly surmised, this is a future perfect form. Literally, something like "you all will have heard". However, this "will have heard" phrasing is awkward in English. English uses the normal present instead, so in any context except a Latin class I would just say "if you hear".
As for why it's future perfect: Latin uses future tense for anything that hasn't happened yet. English doesn't always: consider something like "if you go to the store, make sure to get some eggs". If I'm saying this, you're clearly not going to the store yet. But English leaves off future marking after "if". In particular, Latin would use the future perfect, since it's describing something that hasn't happened yet, but has to happen before something else. The audience can't refuse to harden their hearts until they've heard him speaking.
As for why it's indicative: this is something the speaker actually thinks will happen. The listeners are going to go hear him. Subjunctive is used when it's not likely that the condition will actually come true (or, if you know it actually hasn't happened).
answered 4 hours ago
DraconisDraconis
17.8k22474
You might be surprised to learn that forms with -āv- and -īv- (amāvī, audīvī) are extremely rare in Classical Latin, considered archaic and pretentious by major grammarians! It certainly came as a surprise to me about a month ago, after eight years studying classics…
The upshot is, you should absolutely expect audīeritis instead of audīveritis. Contraction is more common than you've been taught!
As you've rightly surmised, this is a future perfect form. Literally, something like "you all will have heard". However, this "will have heard" phrasing is awkward in English. English uses the normal present instead, so in any context except a Latin class I would just say "if you hear".
As for why it's future perfect: Latin uses future tense for anything that hasn't happened yet. English doesn't always: consider something like "if you go to the store, make sure to get some eggs". If I'm saying this, you're clearly not going to the store yet. But English leaves off future marking after "if". In particular, Latin would use the future perfect, since it's describing something that hasn't happened yet, but has to happen before something else. The audience can't refuse to harden their hearts until they've heard him speaking.
As for why it's indicative: this is something the speaker actually thinks will happen. The listeners are going to go hear him. Subjunctive is used when it's not likely that the condition will actually come true (or, if you know it actually hasn't happened).
answered 4 hours ago
DraconisDraconis
17.8k22474
answered 4 hours ago
DraconisDraconis
17.8k22474
answered 4 hours ago
DraconisDraconis
17.8k22474
answered 4 hours ago
DraconisDraconis
17.8k22474
17.8k22474
1
I think that the i might be shortened in this context (I'd need to check to be sure). Leumann mentions a form "dormĭĕrunt", which seems analogous, although he also mentions "īerant" as a form of eo.
– sumelic
4 hours ago
@sumelic Oh, interesting, I didn't know it was ever shortened! There's a lot I don't know about contractions it seems…
– Draconis
3 hours ago
add a comment |
1
I think that the i might be shortened in this context (I'd need to check to be sure). Leumann mentions a form "dormĭĕrunt", which seems analogous, although he also mentions "īerant" as a form of eo.
– sumelic
4 hours ago
@sumelic Oh, interesting, I didn't know it was ever shortened! There's a lot I don't know about contractions it seems…
– Draconis
3 hours ago
1
1
I think that the i might be shortened in this context (I'd need to check to be sure). Leumann mentions a form "dormĭĕrunt", which seems analogous, although he also mentions "īerant" as a form of eo.
– sumelic
4 hours ago
I think that the i might be shortened in this context (I'd need to check to be sure). Leumann mentions a form "dormĭĕrunt", which seems analogous, although he also mentions "īerant" as a form of eo.
– sumelic
4 hours ago
@sumelic Oh, interesting, I didn't know it was ever shortened! There's a lot I don't know about contractions it seems…
– Draconis
3 hours ago
@sumelic Oh, interesting, I didn't know it was ever shortened! There's a lot I don't know about contractions it seems…
– Draconis
3 hours ago
add a comment |
Thanks for contributing an answer to Latin Language Stack Exchange!
- Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!
But avoid …
- Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.
- Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.
To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function () {
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
});
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
StackExchange.ready(
function () {
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2flatin.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f9350%2funderstanding-audieritis-in-psalm-94%23new-answer', 'question_page');
}
);
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function () {
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
});
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function () {
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
});
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function () {
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
});
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
The intervocalic v of perfect stems can often be lost (sometimes with contraction of the vowels to a single long vowel, sometimes without contraction). Here is a question asking about related contractions: When did unsyncopated forms become archaic?
– sumelic
4 hours ago