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a problem on composition of functions

Proving a Composition of Functions is BijectivePlease explain how to do this proof (involving functions)Proof involving functions.Proof of onto and one-to-one functions, compositionDefining composition of multiples of functions.Proof about composed functionsBehaviour of composition functions of a composite functionComposition of two functions - Bijectionfunction composition and identity functions proof2 questions regarding basic functions

3

1

$begingroup$

Let $f colon A to A$ be a function such that $f circ f=f$. If $f$ is one-to-one then prove that $f$ is also onto.

I know in my head that the func. $f$ is $f(x)=x$, but I can't develop a proof for the above statement.

functions

share|cite|improve this question

edited 19 mins ago

user649511

asked 4 hours ago

user649511user649511

234

New contributor

user649511 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.

$endgroup$

• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  $begingroup$
  Welcome! What have you tried?
  $endgroup$
  – user458276
  4 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  $begingroup$
  Don't try to prove what is the f function. I think that would be much harder than going through the definitions of one-to-one and onto. You can assume you have the one-to-one property and you use the "fof=f" equality somehow (possibly with another thoerem?) to result to the definition of onto.
  $endgroup$
  – frabala
  4 hours ago
  
  
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  $begingroup$
  thank you.. got it..
  $endgroup$
  – user649511
  4 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  $begingroup$
  What are the definitions? What does it mean to be onto?
  $endgroup$
  – JavaMan
  4 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  $begingroup$
  onto means that for a function from set A to set B every element in set B has a pre image in A . i.e. f(x) = y for every y in B
  $endgroup$
  – user649511
  4 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  

add a comment | 

3

1

$begingroup$

Let $f colon A to A$ be a function such that $f circ f=f$. If $f$ is one-to-one then prove that $f$ is also onto.

I know in my head that the func. $f$ is $f(x)=x$, but I can't develop a proof for the above statement.

functions

share|cite|improve this question

edited 19 mins ago

user649511

asked 4 hours ago

user649511user649511

234

New contributor

user649511 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.

$endgroup$

• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  $begingroup$
  Welcome! What have you tried?
  $endgroup$
  – user458276
  4 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  $begingroup$
  Don't try to prove what is the f function. I think that would be much harder than going through the definitions of one-to-one and onto. You can assume you have the one-to-one property and you use the "fof=f" equality somehow (possibly with another thoerem?) to result to the definition of onto.
  $endgroup$
  – frabala
  4 hours ago
  
  
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  $begingroup$
  thank you.. got it..
  $endgroup$
  – user649511
  4 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  $begingroup$
  What are the definitions? What does it mean to be onto?
  $endgroup$
  – JavaMan
  4 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  


• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  $begingroup$
  onto means that for a function from set A to set B every element in set B has a pre image in A . i.e. f(x) = y for every y in B
  $endgroup$
  – user649511
  4 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  

add a comment | 

$begingroup$

Let $f colon A to A$ be a function such that $f circ f=f$. If $f$ is one-to-one then prove that $f$ is also onto.

I know in my head that the func. $f$ is $f(x)=x$, but I can't develop a proof for the above statement.

functions

share|cite|improve this question

edited 19 mins ago

user649511

asked 4 hours ago

user649511user649511

234

New contributor

user649511 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.

$endgroup$

share|cite|improve this question

edited 19 mins ago

user649511

asked 4 hours ago

user649511user649511

234

New contributor

user649511 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.

share|cite|improve this question

edited 19 mins ago

user649511

asked 4 hours ago

user649511user649511

234

New contributor

user649511 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.

asked 4 hours ago

user649511user649511

234

New contributor

user649511 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.

asked 4 hours ago

user649511user649511

234

3 Answers
3

active

oldest

votes

3

$begingroup$

What I like about this problem is that it places no restriction on the carinality $A$; its conclusion binds for some very large sets indeed.

Suppose $f$ is not surjective, and let

$B = f(A) tag 1$

be the image of $A$ under $f$; since

$f circ f = f, tag 2$

it is clear that every element of $B$ is fixed under $f$, for

$b in B Longrightarrow exists c in A, ; b = f(c) Longrightarrow f(b) = f(f(c)) = f(c) = b; tag 3$

furthermore, for $c in A$,

$f(c) = c Longrightarrow c in B; tag 4$

thus $B$ is precisely the set of fixed points of $f$.

We have assumed $f$ not surjective; then by the above we have

$B subsetneq A, tag 5$

which implies

$exists a in A setminus B; tag 6$

if

$b = f(a) in B, tag 7$

then

$f(b) = f(f(a)) = f(a) = b; tag 8$

we note

$B ni b ne a in A setminus B, tag 9$

which contradicts the given hypothesis that $f$ is an injective map. Thus $f$ is in fact surjective.

share|cite|improve this answer

edited 1 hour ago

answered 1 hour ago

Robert LewisRobert Lewis

47.4k23067

$endgroup$

add a comment | 

0

$begingroup$

We know
$fcirc f=f$ so $f([f(x)]) =f (x)$.

Comparing both sides, which shows $[f (x)] = x$ (since $f$ is one-to-one)
so for all $x$ in codomain of $f$ there is an $x$ in domain such that $f(x) = x$ .. so it is onto.. yay...

i see someone downvoted the question

if you feel its a dumb question please know I'm still in school learning relations and functions ! :)

share|cite|improve this answer

edited 4 hours ago

Graham Kemp

86.2k43478

answered 4 hours ago

user649511user649511

234

New contributor

user649511 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.

$endgroup$

• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  $begingroup$
  Questions get marked down or voted to close when they don't show enough initiative. To do that, this attempt should be included as part of the question.
  $endgroup$
  – Graham Kemp
  3 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  

add a comment | 

0

$begingroup$

Let $x in A$. Let $y=f(x).$ Then $f(y) = f(f(x)) = (f circ f) (x) = f(x)$ $implies y=x,$ if f was assumed to be injective. So if $f$ was injective then $f(x)=x,$ for all $x in A.$ So $f$ is the identity map on $A.$ But then $f$ is clearly surjective, as claimed.

QED

share|cite|improve this answer

answered 1 hour ago

Dbchatto67Dbchatto67

1,301219

$endgroup$

add a comment | 

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3

$begingroup$

What I like about this problem is that it places no restriction on the carinality $A$; its conclusion binds for some very large sets indeed.

Suppose $f$ is not surjective, and let

$B = f(A) tag 1$

be the image of $A$ under $f$; since

$f circ f = f, tag 2$

it is clear that every element of $B$ is fixed under $f$, for

$b in B Longrightarrow exists c in A, ; b = f(c) Longrightarrow f(b) = f(f(c)) = f(c) = b; tag 3$

furthermore, for $c in A$,

$f(c) = c Longrightarrow c in B; tag 4$

thus $B$ is precisely the set of fixed points of $f$.

We have assumed $f$ not surjective; then by the above we have

$B subsetneq A, tag 5$

which implies

$exists a in A setminus B; tag 6$

if

$b = f(a) in B, tag 7$

then

$f(b) = f(f(a)) = f(a) = b; tag 8$

we note

$B ni b ne a in A setminus B, tag 9$

which contradicts the given hypothesis that $f$ is an injective map. Thus $f$ is in fact surjective.

share|cite|improve this answer

edited 1 hour ago

answered 1 hour ago

Robert LewisRobert Lewis

47.4k23067

$endgroup$

add a comment | 

3

$begingroup$

What I like about this problem is that it places no restriction on the carinality $A$; its conclusion binds for some very large sets indeed.

Suppose $f$ is not surjective, and let

$B = f(A) tag 1$

be the image of $A$ under $f$; since

$f circ f = f, tag 2$

it is clear that every element of $B$ is fixed under $f$, for

$b in B Longrightarrow exists c in A, ; b = f(c) Longrightarrow f(b) = f(f(c)) = f(c) = b; tag 3$

furthermore, for $c in A$,

$f(c) = c Longrightarrow c in B; tag 4$

thus $B$ is precisely the set of fixed points of $f$.

We have assumed $f$ not surjective; then by the above we have

$B subsetneq A, tag 5$

which implies

$exists a in A setminus B; tag 6$

if

$b = f(a) in B, tag 7$

then

$f(b) = f(f(a)) = f(a) = b; tag 8$

we note

$B ni b ne a in A setminus B, tag 9$

which contradicts the given hypothesis that $f$ is an injective map. Thus $f$ is in fact surjective.

share|cite|improve this answer

edited 1 hour ago

answered 1 hour ago

Robert LewisRobert Lewis

47.4k23067

$endgroup$

add a comment | 

$begingroup$

What I like about this problem is that it places no restriction on the carinality $A$; its conclusion binds for some very large sets indeed.

Suppose $f$ is not surjective, and let

$B = f(A) tag 1$

be the image of $A$ under $f$; since

$f circ f = f, tag 2$

it is clear that every element of $B$ is fixed under $f$, for

$b in B Longrightarrow exists c in A, ; b = f(c) Longrightarrow f(b) = f(f(c)) = f(c) = b; tag 3$

furthermore, for $c in A$,

$f(c) = c Longrightarrow c in B; tag 4$

thus $B$ is precisely the set of fixed points of $f$.

We have assumed $f$ not surjective; then by the above we have

$B subsetneq A, tag 5$

which implies

$exists a in A setminus B; tag 6$

if

$b = f(a) in B, tag 7$

then

$f(b) = f(f(a)) = f(a) = b; tag 8$

we note

$B ni b ne a in A setminus B, tag 9$

which contradicts the given hypothesis that $f$ is an injective map. Thus $f$ is in fact surjective.

share|cite|improve this answer

edited 1 hour ago

answered 1 hour ago

Robert LewisRobert Lewis

47.4k23067

$endgroup$

share|cite|improve this answer

edited 1 hour ago

answered 1 hour ago

Robert LewisRobert Lewis

47.4k23067

answered 1 hour ago

Robert LewisRobert Lewis

47.4k23067

answered 1 hour ago

Robert LewisRobert Lewis

47.4k23067

0

$begingroup$

We know
$fcirc f=f$ so $f([f(x)]) =f (x)$.

Comparing both sides, which shows $[f (x)] = x$ (since $f$ is one-to-one)
so for all $x$ in codomain of $f$ there is an $x$ in domain such that $f(x) = x$ .. so it is onto.. yay...

i see someone downvoted the question

if you feel its a dumb question please know I'm still in school learning relations and functions ! :)

share|cite|improve this answer

edited 4 hours ago

Graham Kemp

86.2k43478

answered 4 hours ago

user649511user649511

234

New contributor

user649511 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.

$endgroup$

• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  $begingroup$
  Questions get marked down or voted to close when they don't show enough initiative. To do that, this attempt should be included as part of the question.
  $endgroup$
  – Graham Kemp
  3 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  

add a comment | 

0

$begingroup$

We know
$fcirc f=f$ so $f([f(x)]) =f (x)$.

Comparing both sides, which shows $[f (x)] = x$ (since $f$ is one-to-one)
so for all $x$ in codomain of $f$ there is an $x$ in domain such that $f(x) = x$ .. so it is onto.. yay...

i see someone downvoted the question

if you feel its a dumb question please know I'm still in school learning relations and functions ! :)

share|cite|improve this answer

edited 4 hours ago

Graham Kemp

86.2k43478

answered 4 hours ago

user649511user649511

234

New contributor

user649511 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.

$endgroup$

• 
  
  
  

  
  

  
  
  
  
  
  

  
  $begingroup$
  Questions get marked down or voted to close when they don't show enough initiative. To do that, this attempt should be included as part of the question.
  $endgroup$
  – Graham Kemp
  3 hours ago
  

  
  
  
  

add a comment | 

$begingroup$

We know
$fcirc f=f$ so $f([f(x)]) =f (x)$.

Comparing both sides, which shows $[f (x)] = x$ (since $f$ is one-to-one)
so for all $x$ in codomain of $f$ there is an $x$ in domain such that $f(x) = x$ .. so it is onto.. yay...

i see someone downvoted the question

if you feel its a dumb question please know I'm still in school learning relations and functions ! :)

share|cite|improve this answer

edited 4 hours ago

Graham Kemp

86.2k43478

answered 4 hours ago

user649511user649511

234

New contributor

user649511 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.

$endgroup$

share|cite|improve this answer

edited 4 hours ago

Graham Kemp

86.2k43478

answered 4 hours ago

user649511user649511

234

New contributor

user649511 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.

edited 4 hours ago

Graham Kemp

86.2k43478

edited 4 hours ago

Graham Kemp

86.2k43478

answered 4 hours ago

user649511user649511

234

New contributor

user649511 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.

answered 4 hours ago

user649511user649511

234

0

$begingroup$

Let $x in A$. Let $y=f(x).$ Then $f(y) = f(f(x)) = (f circ f) (x) = f(x)$ $implies y=x,$ if f was assumed to be injective. So if $f$ was injective then $f(x)=x,$ for all $x in A.$ So $f$ is the identity map on $A.$ But then $f$ is clearly surjective, as claimed.

QED

share|cite|improve this answer

answered 1 hour ago

Dbchatto67Dbchatto67

1,301219

$endgroup$

add a comment | 

0

$begingroup$

Let $x in A$. Let $y=f(x).$ Then $f(y) = f(f(x)) = (f circ f) (x) = f(x)$ $implies y=x,$ if f was assumed to be injective. So if $f$ was injective then $f(x)=x,$ for all $x in A.$ So $f$ is the identity map on $A.$ But then $f$ is clearly surjective, as claimed.

QED

share|cite|improve this answer

answered 1 hour ago

Dbchatto67Dbchatto67

1,301219

$endgroup$

add a comment | 

$begingroup$

Let $x in A$. Let $y=f(x).$ Then $f(y) = f(f(x)) = (f circ f) (x) = f(x)$ $implies y=x,$ if f was assumed to be injective. So if $f$ was injective then $f(x)=x,$ for all $x in A.$ So $f$ is the identity map on $A.$ But then $f$ is clearly surjective, as claimed.

QED

share|cite|improve this answer

answered 1 hour ago

Dbchatto67Dbchatto67

1,301219

$endgroup$

share|cite|improve this answer

answered 1 hour ago

Dbchatto67Dbchatto67

1,301219

answered 1 hour ago

Dbchatto67Dbchatto67

1,301219

answered 1 hour ago

Dbchatto67Dbchatto67

1,301219