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Does “Dominei” mean something?
What does cōcutit mean?Does verbum also mean verb?Does this Latin phrase make sense grammatically?What does “tellus” mean?What does “ratio doloris” mean?What does “Attero Dominatus” mean?What does “et alibi” mean?What does “Vivos voco pedibus ioco” mean?What does “dives fluminarum” mean?What does “Dominus providebit” mean?
I am not at all an expert in Latin, but I am a Spanish speaker so our languages are a little related, at least. I was wondering if I could just add suffixes to words to make new words. Sometimes, in Spanish, they don't make a lot of sense, so I was wondering if this word made some sense, or if it could at least exist because I didn't find it anywhere on the internet.
meaning
asked 4 hours ago
mariogarccmariogarcc
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add a comment |
I am not at all an expert in Latin, but I am a Spanish speaker so our languages are a little related, at least. I was wondering if I could just add suffixes to words to make new words. Sometimes, in Spanish, they don't make a lot of sense, so I was wondering if this word made some sense, or if it could at least exist because I didn't find it anywhere on the internet.
meaning
asked 4 hours ago
mariogarccmariogarcc
133
New contributor
mariogarcc is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
add a comment |
I am not at all an expert in Latin, but I am a Spanish speaker so our languages are a little related, at least. I was wondering if I could just add suffixes to words to make new words. Sometimes, in Spanish, they don't make a lot of sense, so I was wondering if this word made some sense, or if it could at least exist because I didn't find it anywhere on the internet.
meaning
asked 4 hours ago
mariogarccmariogarcc
133
New contributor
mariogarcc is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
I am not at all an expert in Latin, but I am a Spanish speaker so our languages are a little related, at least. I was wondering if I could just add suffixes to words to make new words. Sometimes, in Spanish, they don't make a lot of sense, so I was wondering if this word made some sense, or if it could at least exist because I didn't find it anywhere on the internet.
meaning
meaning
asked 4 hours ago
mariogarccmariogarcc
133
New contributor
mariogarcc is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
asked 4 hours ago
mariogarccmariogarcc
133
New contributor
mariogarcc is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
asked 4 hours ago
mariogarccmariogarcc
133
New contributor
mariogarcc is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
asked 4 hours ago
mariogarccmariogarcc
133
asked 4 hours ago
mariogarccmariogarcc
133
133
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mariogarcc is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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New contributor
mariogarcc is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
mariogarcc is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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add a comment |
1 Answer
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Yes, but it's either archaic or incorrect.
In Latin, all nouns follow a declension pattern. You know how verbs in Spanish act differently depending if they end in -ar versus -er versus -ir? In Latin, nouns work the same way.
The word dominus "lord" follows the "second declension pattern", which means that the nominative plural ("lords") and the genitive singular ("of the lord") are both dominī in Classical Latin.
However, in Old Latin, the genitive singular was dominī, and the nominative plural was dominei. (If you go back even further, it was dominoi.) So in Old Latin, dominei means "lords", or "the lords".
Later, ei started being pronounced just the same as ī. Eventually it started being spelled as ī too. But for a while in the middle, people mostly used ei and ī interchangeably. During this time, the genitive singular might also be spelled dominei just by "mistake", like how people sometimes substitute an s for a c in English. While Cicero wouldn't consider this correct, I wouldn't be at all surprised to see it in graffiti.
edited 3 hours ago
sumelic
8,07411955
answered 3 hours ago
DraconisDraconis
17.6k22373
Thank you for your time, very insightful answer. However, "genitive" appears to mean "that expresses possession or relation, equivalent to the English of", so would that make it mean "of the lords" instead of just "lords" or "the lords"? I am aware that meanings may be different in different contexts. I am interested in this particular word/case because of some wordplay I'm interested in making with it, so I am not too worried about 100% serious/literarily correct meanings, and if it means "of the Lords", it would be the best case scenario for this wordplay I'm trying to make.
– mariogarcc
3 hours ago
Not quite, @mariogarcc: the form Draconis is talking about is genitive singular: "of the/a lord". The genitive plural would be dominorum in classical Latin.
– Colin Fine
3 hours ago
@ColinFine oh, that's fine then, I meant to write as in both singular and plural, hehe. Thank you both for your time and assistance. P.S.: if anyone was curious, the wordplay I was trying to make was related to making a website calleddominei.me, which now has four different meanings/implications, thanks to this.
– mariogarcc
3 hours ago
@mariogarcc As Colin mentions, this is either genitive singular or nominative plural. So it's either "of the lord" or "the lords", not "of the lords". But it sounds like that still works for you!
– Draconis
3 hours ago
add a comment |
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Yes, but it's either archaic or incorrect.
In Latin, all nouns follow a declension pattern. You know how verbs in Spanish act differently depending if they end in -ar versus -er versus -ir? In Latin, nouns work the same way.
The word dominus "lord" follows the "second declension pattern", which means that the nominative plural ("lords") and the genitive singular ("of the lord") are both dominī in Classical Latin.
However, in Old Latin, the genitive singular was dominī, and the nominative plural was dominei. (If you go back even further, it was dominoi.) So in Old Latin, dominei means "lords", or "the lords".
Later, ei started being pronounced just the same as ī. Eventually it started being spelled as ī too. But for a while in the middle, people mostly used ei and ī interchangeably. During this time, the genitive singular might also be spelled dominei just by "mistake", like how people sometimes substitute an s for a c in English. While Cicero wouldn't consider this correct, I wouldn't be at all surprised to see it in graffiti.
edited 3 hours ago
sumelic
8,07411955
answered 3 hours ago
DraconisDraconis
17.6k22373
Thank you for your time, very insightful answer. However, "genitive" appears to mean "that expresses possession or relation, equivalent to the English of", so would that make it mean "of the lords" instead of just "lords" or "the lords"? I am aware that meanings may be different in different contexts. I am interested in this particular word/case because of some wordplay I'm interested in making with it, so I am not too worried about 100% serious/literarily correct meanings, and if it means "of the Lords", it would be the best case scenario for this wordplay I'm trying to make.
– mariogarcc
3 hours ago
Not quite, @mariogarcc: the form Draconis is talking about is genitive singular: "of the/a lord". The genitive plural would be dominorum in classical Latin.
– Colin Fine
3 hours ago
@ColinFine oh, that's fine then, I meant to write as in both singular and plural, hehe. Thank you both for your time and assistance. P.S.: if anyone was curious, the wordplay I was trying to make was related to making a website calleddominei.me, which now has four different meanings/implications, thanks to this.
– mariogarcc
3 hours ago
@mariogarcc As Colin mentions, this is either genitive singular or nominative plural. So it's either "of the lord" or "the lords", not "of the lords". But it sounds like that still works for you!
– Draconis
3 hours ago
add a comment |
Yes, but it's either archaic or incorrect.
In Latin, all nouns follow a declension pattern. You know how verbs in Spanish act differently depending if they end in -ar versus -er versus -ir? In Latin, nouns work the same way.
The word dominus "lord" follows the "second declension pattern", which means that the nominative plural ("lords") and the genitive singular ("of the lord") are both dominī in Classical Latin.
However, in Old Latin, the genitive singular was dominī, and the nominative plural was dominei. (If you go back even further, it was dominoi.) So in Old Latin, dominei means "lords", or "the lords".
Later, ei started being pronounced just the same as ī. Eventually it started being spelled as ī too. But for a while in the middle, people mostly used ei and ī interchangeably. During this time, the genitive singular might also be spelled dominei just by "mistake", like how people sometimes substitute an s for a c in English. While Cicero wouldn't consider this correct, I wouldn't be at all surprised to see it in graffiti.
edited 3 hours ago
sumelic
8,07411955
answered 3 hours ago
DraconisDraconis
17.6k22373
Thank you for your time, very insightful answer. However, "genitive" appears to mean "that expresses possession or relation, equivalent to the English of", so would that make it mean "of the lords" instead of just "lords" or "the lords"? I am aware that meanings may be different in different contexts. I am interested in this particular word/case because of some wordplay I'm interested in making with it, so I am not too worried about 100% serious/literarily correct meanings, and if it means "of the Lords", it would be the best case scenario for this wordplay I'm trying to make.
– mariogarcc
3 hours ago
Not quite, @mariogarcc: the form Draconis is talking about is genitive singular: "of the/a lord". The genitive plural would be dominorum in classical Latin.
– Colin Fine
3 hours ago
@ColinFine oh, that's fine then, I meant to write as in both singular and plural, hehe. Thank you both for your time and assistance. P.S.: if anyone was curious, the wordplay I was trying to make was related to making a website calleddominei.me, which now has four different meanings/implications, thanks to this.
– mariogarcc
3 hours ago
@mariogarcc As Colin mentions, this is either genitive singular or nominative plural. So it's either "of the lord" or "the lords", not "of the lords". But it sounds like that still works for you!
– Draconis
3 hours ago
add a comment |
Yes, but it's either archaic or incorrect.
In Latin, all nouns follow a declension pattern. You know how verbs in Spanish act differently depending if they end in -ar versus -er versus -ir? In Latin, nouns work the same way.
The word dominus "lord" follows the "second declension pattern", which means that the nominative plural ("lords") and the genitive singular ("of the lord") are both dominī in Classical Latin.
However, in Old Latin, the genitive singular was dominī, and the nominative plural was dominei. (If you go back even further, it was dominoi.) So in Old Latin, dominei means "lords", or "the lords".
Later, ei started being pronounced just the same as ī. Eventually it started being spelled as ī too. But for a while in the middle, people mostly used ei and ī interchangeably. During this time, the genitive singular might also be spelled dominei just by "mistake", like how people sometimes substitute an s for a c in English. While Cicero wouldn't consider this correct, I wouldn't be at all surprised to see it in graffiti.
edited 3 hours ago
sumelic
8,07411955
answered 3 hours ago
DraconisDraconis
17.6k22373
Yes, but it's either archaic or incorrect.
In Latin, all nouns follow a declension pattern. You know how verbs in Spanish act differently depending if they end in -ar versus -er versus -ir? In Latin, nouns work the same way.
The word dominus "lord" follows the "second declension pattern", which means that the nominative plural ("lords") and the genitive singular ("of the lord") are both dominī in Classical Latin.
However, in Old Latin, the genitive singular was dominī, and the nominative plural was dominei. (If you go back even further, it was dominoi.) So in Old Latin, dominei means "lords", or "the lords".
Later, ei started being pronounced just the same as ī. Eventually it started being spelled as ī too. But for a while in the middle, people mostly used ei and ī interchangeably. During this time, the genitive singular might also be spelled dominei just by "mistake", like how people sometimes substitute an s for a c in English. While Cicero wouldn't consider this correct, I wouldn't be at all surprised to see it in graffiti.
edited 3 hours ago
sumelic
8,07411955
answered 3 hours ago
DraconisDraconis
17.6k22373
edited 3 hours ago
sumelic
8,07411955
edited 3 hours ago
sumelic
8,07411955
edited 3 hours ago
sumelic
8,07411955
8,07411955
answered 3 hours ago
DraconisDraconis
17.6k22373
answered 3 hours ago
DraconisDraconis
17.6k22373
answered 3 hours ago
DraconisDraconis
17.6k22373
17.6k22373
Thank you for your time, very insightful answer. However, "genitive" appears to mean "that expresses possession or relation, equivalent to the English of", so would that make it mean "of the lords" instead of just "lords" or "the lords"? I am aware that meanings may be different in different contexts. I am interested in this particular word/case because of some wordplay I'm interested in making with it, so I am not too worried about 100% serious/literarily correct meanings, and if it means "of the Lords", it would be the best case scenario for this wordplay I'm trying to make.
– mariogarcc
3 hours ago
Not quite, @mariogarcc: the form Draconis is talking about is genitive singular: "of the/a lord". The genitive plural would be dominorum in classical Latin.
– Colin Fine
3 hours ago
@ColinFine oh, that's fine then, I meant to write as in both singular and plural, hehe. Thank you both for your time and assistance. P.S.: if anyone was curious, the wordplay I was trying to make was related to making a website calleddominei.me, which now has four different meanings/implications, thanks to this.
– mariogarcc
3 hours ago
@mariogarcc As Colin mentions, this is either genitive singular or nominative plural. So it's either "of the lord" or "the lords", not "of the lords". But it sounds like that still works for you!
– Draconis
3 hours ago
add a comment |
Thank you for your time, very insightful answer. However, "genitive" appears to mean "that expresses possession or relation, equivalent to the English of", so would that make it mean "of the lords" instead of just "lords" or "the lords"? I am aware that meanings may be different in different contexts. I am interested in this particular word/case because of some wordplay I'm interested in making with it, so I am not too worried about 100% serious/literarily correct meanings, and if it means "of the Lords", it would be the best case scenario for this wordplay I'm trying to make.
– mariogarcc
3 hours ago
Not quite, @mariogarcc: the form Draconis is talking about is genitive singular: "of the/a lord". The genitive plural would be dominorum in classical Latin.
– Colin Fine
3 hours ago
@ColinFine oh, that's fine then, I meant to write as in both singular and plural, hehe. Thank you both for your time and assistance. P.S.: if anyone was curious, the wordplay I was trying to make was related to making a website calleddominei.me, which now has four different meanings/implications, thanks to this.
– mariogarcc
3 hours ago
@mariogarcc As Colin mentions, this is either genitive singular or nominative plural. So it's either "of the lord" or "the lords", not "of the lords". But it sounds like that still works for you!
– Draconis
3 hours ago
Thank you for your time, very insightful answer. However, "genitive" appears to mean "that expresses possession or relation, equivalent to the English of", so would that make it mean "of the lords" instead of just "lords" or "the lords"? I am aware that meanings may be different in different contexts. I am interested in this particular word/case because of some wordplay I'm interested in making with it, so I am not too worried about 100% serious/literarily correct meanings, and if it means "of the Lords", it would be the best case scenario for this wordplay I'm trying to make.
– mariogarcc
3 hours ago
Thank you for your time, very insightful answer. However, "genitive" appears to mean "that expresses possession or relation, equivalent to the English of", so would that make it mean "of the lords" instead of just "lords" or "the lords"? I am aware that meanings may be different in different contexts. I am interested in this particular word/case because of some wordplay I'm interested in making with it, so I am not too worried about 100% serious/literarily correct meanings, and if it means "of the Lords", it would be the best case scenario for this wordplay I'm trying to make.
– mariogarcc
3 hours ago
Not quite, @mariogarcc: the form Draconis is talking about is genitive singular: "of the/a lord". The genitive plural would be dominorum in classical Latin.
– Colin Fine
3 hours ago
Not quite, @mariogarcc: the form Draconis is talking about is genitive singular: "of the/a lord". The genitive plural would be dominorum in classical Latin.
– Colin Fine
3 hours ago
@ColinFine oh, that's fine then, I meant to write as in both singular and plural, hehe. Thank you both for your time and assistance. P.S.: if anyone was curious, the wordplay I was trying to make was related to making a website called
dominei.me, which now has four different meanings/implications, thanks to this.– mariogarcc
3 hours ago
@ColinFine oh, that's fine then, I meant to write as in both singular and plural, hehe. Thank you both for your time and assistance. P.S.: if anyone was curious, the wordplay I was trying to make was related to making a website called
dominei.me, which now has four different meanings/implications, thanks to this.– mariogarcc
3 hours ago
@mariogarcc As Colin mentions, this is either genitive singular or nominative plural. So it's either "of the lord" or "the lords", not "of the lords". But it sounds like that still works for you!
– Draconis
3 hours ago
@mariogarcc As Colin mentions, this is either genitive singular or nominative plural. So it's either "of the lord" or "the lords", not "of the lords". But it sounds like that still works for you!
– Draconis
3 hours ago
add a comment |
mariogarcc is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
mariogarcc is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
mariogarcc is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
mariogarcc is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
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